- Joined
- Jun 3, 2003
- Messages
- 115
Alright, today I was reading the Wall Street Journal and was interested in an article about how SAT scores have reached a 30 year high, with an average score of 1026. Anyhow, it went on to say that although the average score went up, the disparity between scores of whites and minorities went up (except for asians, which scored highest). And the final comparison they made was saying that the gap between scores for boys and girls (without respect to race) also widened. This final comparison and a quote in the article about it is where I get confused.
Here's the quote:
"The College Board, which owns the SAT, said that is because female test-takers are more likely than males to be minorities and to come from families with lower incomes and less education. Those characteristics are strong predictors of lower scores."
Ok, so what that is saying is that if you have a vagina, you are more likely to have come from a poor, uneducated family and be a minority than if you had a penis. Does this not make sense to anyone else? If this statement is true, then does that mean that more guys have rich, white socialite fathers than girls do? I mean, I thought it was a 50/50 chance that you were born a male or a female. But this quote is saying that well-to-do families have more male children than females.
If anyone can explain the logic of this quote in a way that makes sense, I'd appreciate it.
- d_s
Here's the quote:
"The College Board, which owns the SAT, said that is because female test-takers are more likely than males to be minorities and to come from families with lower incomes and less education. Those characteristics are strong predictors of lower scores."
Ok, so what that is saying is that if you have a vagina, you are more likely to have come from a poor, uneducated family and be a minority than if you had a penis. Does this not make sense to anyone else? If this statement is true, then does that mean that more guys have rich, white socialite fathers than girls do? I mean, I thought it was a 50/50 chance that you were born a male or a female. But this quote is saying that well-to-do families have more male children than females.
If anyone can explain the logic of this quote in a way that makes sense, I'd appreciate it.
- d_s